Quote:
Originally Posted by Snaggletooth
I would use then-prevailing price as a basis after you've gone back as far as you can. I would not use zero. That's what the IRS does on their deficiency notices to maximize revenue, and there would be more factual support for the price than for zero.
You can find the "then-prevailing price" for any date using a number of different websites, such as BigMarkets.com.
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I think you mean BigCharts.com. I can see the pricing going back several years and the reinvestment pricing at each time via the fund site but that's not an exact answer. If I go back about 12 years and build it, it'll come up with a tax loss. I hate to report a tax loss if you can't prove it with fund statements. BUT, I'm pretty darn sure they've turned over the entire portfolio in that 12 year period so built in gains should have been realized.
The reality is, with a mutual fund, they pay the taxes all along so the gain in the best of times is often limited. If it's a bond fund I've never seen a long term investor who had an appreciable gain. If it were an individual stock, it would be a totally different situation.
They are selling it all at once to pay off all of their debts before going into a nursing home. Imagine being 85ish and having significant debts. Ouch.